Genealogy Chat
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Profile | Posted by | Options | Post Date |
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optimistic olivia | Report | 21 Aug 2006 13:46 |
Thanks Victoria for replying. This is all a bit of a guess isn't it? No-one was there to tell us otherwise. My grandmother always used to say that 'there was no funny business in our family'. I wonder what she'd say now!!! Patricia |
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Victoria | Report | 21 Aug 2006 13:37 |
Hi Patricia, While the man Robert's mother married two months after his birth may well have been his father, there is no certainty (not that there is any certainty that a child born within a marriage is necessarily the fathers either. Lol ). At best it is a guess. As for Robert's surname being changed to his mother's husband's name, it could be an indication of his being the father - but people called themselves whatever they chose (it was not necessary to do this legally) and often whole passels of children belonging to a widow would start using their stepfather's name. I have found a degree of inconsistency with regard to the way Vicars recorded illigitimate children (depending on his knowledge of the people concerned maybe, and whether he liked them or otherwise). Can you find a marriage for a Sarah ....... to someone called Sale? If not, it would appear that the child was indeed born 'without benefit of clergy'. Sorry - this response isn't that helpful - but at least it has nudged your thread to the top of page 1!! Maybe someone else will have some more positive input. Good luck - Victoria |
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optimistic olivia | Report | 21 Aug 2006 11:57 |
Another question for all you knowledgable people out there. I've finally found my elusive gt grandad Robert as he was born before his mother married and was registered under her name. (This was in 1863) No mention of the father. 2 months later his mother marries and from then on (census, marriage, death certs.) he has the name of the husband, presumably his father. Would he have had to change his family name legally or was it possible for him to just automatically use the father's name? Also (I'm being greedy) can tell me if, in 1726, a child was baptised as 'son of Sarah Sale' with no father mentioned, he was automatically illegitimate? One of the entries just above this one states the child as being 'the bastard son of ....' It was the same vicar writing the entry. I'm just wondering if the father could have died before the birth. Thanks in advance. Patricia |