Genealogy Chat
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Divorce
| Profile | Posted by | Options | Post Date |
|---|---|---|---|
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Chris | Report | 21 Jun 2006 20:25 |
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Many thanks - seems likely to have been bigamy then!! Especially given the speed between the first wedding, birth of child and second wedding. Thanks for your help. |
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Unknown | Report | 20 Jun 2006 21:20 |
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The richer you were, the more likely it was you could afford a divorce, but it was also more likely that it was well-publicised and difficult to pretend you were single if you married again. nell |
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Glen In Tinsel Knickers | Report | 20 Jun 2006 21:14 |
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Bigamy was pretty common,the cost of divorce beyond the reach of most folk and the 'lesser' classes less likely to worry about the details. It also depends if the 'stigma' attached to divorce was a concern to the person involved. Glen |
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KathleenBell | Report | 20 Jun 2006 21:11 |
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They should really say (previously married), but they might have lied and said spinster. However if these were ordinary working class people, it is unlikely that they actually divorced as it was very expensive and out of the reach of most people. There was a lot of bigamy about. Kath. x |
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Chris | Report | 20 Jun 2006 21:08 |
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Can anyone help with information please? If someone divorced in early 1900s then remarried, would they call themselves 'spinster' again or what term would they use? Thank you |
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